WHO DID ADAM'S SONS MARRY?

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IS THIS THE LORD’S PRAYER? OUR FATHER WHICH ART IN HEAVEN, HALLOWED BE THY NAME.……….

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In Matthew 6:9-13 Jesus taught the people how to pray. This prayer pattern is what is generally referred to as "The Lord's Prayer." It is interesting to note that the Lord did not call it His Prayer. In fact, if any Prayer is more qualified to be referred to as “The Lord’s Prayer” it should be His personal prayer to the Father in John chapter 17: Joh 17:1  These words spake Jesus, and lifted up his eyes to heaven, and said, Father, the hour is come; glorify thy Son, that thy Son also may glorify thee: Joh 17:2  As thou hast given him power over all flesh, that he should give eternal life to as many as thou hast given him. Joh 17:3  And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent. Joh 17:4  I have glorified thee on the earth: I have finished the work which thou gavest me to do. Joh 17:5   And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the worl...
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WHAT DOES BLASPHEMY AGAINST THE HOLY SPIRIT MEAN?

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The phrase “blasphemy against the Holy Spirit” is found in Matthew 12:31-32, Mark 3:28-29 and Luke 12:10. (Matthew 12:31-32 KJV) Wherefore I say unto you, All manner of sin and blasphemy shall be forgiven unto men: but the blasphemy against the Holy Ghost shall not be forgiven unto men. And whosoever speaketh a word against the Son of man, it shall be forgiven him: but whosoever speaketh against the Holy Ghost, it shall not be forgiven him, neither in this world, neither in the world to come.  (Mark 3:28-29 KJV) Verily I say unto you, All sins shall be forgiven unto the sons of men, and blasphemies wherewith soever they shall blaspheme: But he that shall blaspheme against the Holy Ghost hath never forgiveness, but is in danger of eternal damnation:  (Luke 12:10 KJV) And whosoever shall speak a word against the Son of man, it shall be forgiven him: but unto him that blasphemeth against the Holy Ghost it shall not be forgiven.  The word translated blasp...
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IS "RAPTURE" BIBLICAL?

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By Lex Meyer The “Rapture” theory is one of the most recent doctrines to have developed in modern Christianity. It was developed around the nineteenth century and has become exceedingly popular in the past 50 years. There are a number of variations about the rapture, such as pre-tribulation, mid-tribulation, or post-tribulation, but the general idea is that all Christians will be taken up to heaven at some point during the last days. It is sometimes referred to as the “secret rapture” because they believe it will come suddenly and without warning. They teach that the rapture could happen at any moment, so we must always be ready because no one knows the day or the hour. Many of the recent books and movies about the rapture convey an almost comical situation in which piles of clothes are left on chairs where people once sat, vehicles are suddenly abandoned while driving down the road, and everyone on earth (who are “Left Behind”) are overcome with confusion and...
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IS THE RAPTURE BIBLICAL PART 2: WHY WOULD THE SAINTS RISE TO MEET CHRIST IN THE AIR, WHEN HE IS ON HIS WAY TO THE EARTH?

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This is a continuation of my previous post " Is The Rapture Biblical " Why would the saints rise to meet Christ in the air, when He is on His way to the earth to defeat evil and to establish the Kingdom of God here? Why not simply wait for Him to arrive? Those who teach the rapture make much of this issue, claiming that it buttresses their theory. In fact, the truth of the matter actually further discredits their erroneous teaching. We need to look at the meaning of the Greek term translated “to meet” that Christ inspired Paul to use in 1 Thessalonians 4:17. Dr. Leon Morris writes in the Tyndale New Testament Commentaries: “The expression translated to meet is kind of a technical term ‘for the official welcome of a newly arrived dignitary’…and is very suitable in this context.” Notice that it pertains to a newly arrived dignitary, not to one who is merely passing through. In no way does it convey that Christ only enters the atmosphere and then reverses cou...
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JESUS CALLED HIS FATHER, "MY GOD". CAN GOD HAVE GOD?

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In the book of John 20:17, Jesus address His Father as "My God". Also he called Him "My God" in the book of Matthew 27:46 and Revelation 3:12. There are other Bible references where the terms, "God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ" were used. Does it mean Jesus is not the true God since he has someone he calls God? (John 20:17 KJV) Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God , and your God.  (Matthew 27:46 KJV) And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? that is to say, My God , my God, why hast thou forsaken me?  (Revelation 3:12 KJV) Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God , and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God , which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God...
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"LET THE DEAD BURY THE DEAD" WHAT DOES THIS MEAN?

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It was usual among Jews to call sinners dead men, because they are dead in trespasses and sins. Some bible references in support of this include: Ephesians 2:1 In the past you were dead because you sinned and fought against God.  Contemporary English Version. Colossians 2:13 You were dead, because you were sinful and were not God's people. But God let Christ make you alive, when he forgave all our sins.  Contemporary English Version. 1 Pet 4:6 The good news has even been preached to the dead, so that after they have been judged for what they have done in this life, their spirits will live with God.  Contemporary English Version. 1 Timothy 5:6 But she that liveth in pleasure is dead while she liveth. KJV. Despite how strange and odd such a phrase may sound in the ears of some, of one dead man's burying another, it was easily understood by a Jew; with whom it is common to say, " that a sinner is counted as dead , and that ungodly persons, e...
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UNDERSTANDING THE GIFT OF PROPHECY: THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN FORETELLING, FORTH-TELLING AND FORTUNE TELLING

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There is so much misunderstanding in the Church today regarding the gift of prophecy. Many people believe that prophecy only refers to telling something before it happens. However, even in the Old Testament, the messages of the prophets contained as much, if not more, about the present than they did about the future. In Hebrew, the word translated prophecy is based on the word stem nābā, which simply means “to speak by divine inspiration, either in prediction or simple discourse.”  “ Prophecies ” is transliterated (i.e. brought straight over from Greek to English) from the noun  prophēteia . It is made up of  pro , meaning “before, in time or position” and a form of the verb  phēmi , meaning “to tell.” The verb form of this word can refer  EITHER : Foretelling  (predicting or telling something before it happens). It seeks to predict the future. It predicts or reveals personalities, occurrences, circumstances that will hap...
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JACOB DID NOT WAIT FOR 7 OR 14 YEARS BEFORE LEAH/ RACHEL WERE GIVEN TO HIM. HE TOOK BOTH WIVES IMMEDIATELY.

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Many Christians thought that Jacob worked seven years for Laban, realized that Laban deceived him to marry Leah, and then worked seven more years before finally getting married to Rachel. However the bible shows that he took both Leah and Rachel immediately before he began serving Laban. For clarity, I advise you to read this Jacob's story in other translations of the Bible aside King James Version (KJV). Meanwhile lets look at look at some of the facts from the Bible: (Genesis 29:21 KJV) And Jacob said unto Laban, Give me my wife, for my days are fulfilled, that I may go in unto her. Please note that the 7 years of service required of Jacob were the total dowry and not the customary waiting period before a wife was given to the groom. In other words, Jacob took Leah after the customary waiting period which was a couple of days just like we read in vs 21. Notice that he said, "Give me my wife, for my days are fulfilled" implying a certain number of d...
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WERE JESUS AND JOHN THE BAPTIST COUSINS?

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(Luke 1:36 KJV) And, behold, thy cousin Elisabeth, she hath also conceived a son in her old age: and this is the sixth month with her, who was called barren. The King James Version (KJV) of the above verse seems to suggest that Mary, the mother of Jesus and Elizabeth, the mother of John the Baptist were cousins. It is worthy to note that the Hebrew language has no word for cousin. The word translated cousin in the above verse is from the Greek word, suggenes which has same meaning as countryman, kinswoman, relative, one of the same race.  Also note that the word "cousin" used to mean any relative in the 17th century when the KJV was written. Other Bible Versions refrained from using the word "cousin" in Luke 1:36. (Luke 1:36 NLT) What's more, your relative Elizabeth has become pregnant in her old age! People used to say she was barren, but she has conceived a son and is now in her sixth month. (Luke 1:36 AMP) And listen, even your relative Elizabeth has also...
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