WHY DID OUR LORD JESUS CHRIST NOT PERFORM MANY MIRACLES IN NAZARETH?


I have heard a lot of Preachers say that Jesus could not perform many miracle in Nazareth because the people's unbelief neutralized His power. They go as far as dramatizing it by showing that Jesus tried to heal a blind eye, a deaf ear or a lame man but couldn't because their unbelief neutralized Jesus' power. What exactly does the Bible say?

(Matthew 13:54-58 KJV) And when he was come into his own country, he taught them in their synagogue, insomuch that they were astonished, and said, Whence hath this man this wisdom, and these mighty works? Is not this the carpenter’s son? is not his mother called Mary? and his brethren, James, and Joses, and Simon, and Judas? And his sisters, are they not all with us? Whence then hath this man all these things? And they were offended in him. But Jesus said unto them, A prophet is not without honour, save in his own country, and in his own house. And he did not many mighty works there because of their unbelief. 

The Bible indeed stated that Jesus did not perform many mighty works in his own country (Nazareth) due to their unbelief. However, it did not say that their unbelief neutralized his power to heal as dramatized by some of our teachers and pastors. Unbelief has never been a limiting factor to His powers whereby He will give command to blind eyes and it will not open. The Bible has record of people Jesus healed despite their unbelief. For instance:

(Mark 9:23-26 KJV) Jesus said unto him, If thou canst believe, all things are possible to him that believeth.
And straightway the father of the child cried out, and said with tears, Lord, I believe; help thou mine unbelief. When Jesus saw that the people came running together, he rebuked the foul spirit, saying unto him, Thou dumb and deaf spirit, I charge thee, come out of him, and enter no more into him. And the spirit cried, and rent him sore, and came out of him: and he was as one dead; insomuch that many said, He is dead.

You could see from the above scriptures that the father's unbelief did not stop Jesus from healing the man with foul spirit.

So what then happen in Matthew 13:54-58 that made Jesus not to perform many mighty works in his own country? A clue of what must have caused it can be seen in Matthew 13:57.

Matthew 13:57 says that "they were offended in him" and did not believe. 

Because they were offered in him they refused to bring their sick persons to Jesus thereby reducing the number of mighty miracles recorded in that town. In other words, not making available their sick ones for healing as a result of their unbelief must have been the reason.

Comments

Popular posts from this blog

JACOB DID NOT WAIT FOR 7 OR 14 YEARS BEFORE LEAH/ RACHEL WERE GIVEN TO HIM. HE TOOK BOTH WIVES IMMEDIATELY.

DOES OUR FIRST FRUITS MEAN ANY MONEY RECEIVED SUCH AS INHERITANCE?

SHOULD YOU GIVE YOUR WHOLE FIRST MONTH’S SALARY TO YOUR CHURCH AS ‘FIRST-FRUIT’?

IS THE RAPTURE BIBLICAL PART 2: WHY WOULD THE SAINTS RISE TO MEET CHRIST IN THE AIR, WHEN HE IS ON HIS WAY TO THE EARTH?

WHY DID JESUS SAY HE CAME ONLY FOR ISRAEL?

UNDERSTANDING THE GIFT OF PROPHECY: THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN FORETELLING, FORTH-TELLING AND FORTUNE TELLING

WHAT IS THE NAME OF THE FATHER, THE SON AND THE HOLY GHOST IN THE NEW TESTAMENT?

WHAT DOES THE BIBLE MEAN WHEN IT SAYS; "TOUCH NOT MY ANOINTED ONES"?

WHY GOD HARDENED PHARAOH'S HEART

IS REINCARNATION BIBLICAL? SHOULD CHRISTIANS BELIEVE IN REINCARNATION?