"Heaven helps those who help themselves" is not in the bible from my understanding, rather its the opposite. God helps the helpless, the powerless etc. please enlighten me more on this, thank you.
It is not in the Bible. However, we should not completely discard the "possible" underlying interpretation the initial writer of the quote was trying to convey
There is so much misunderstanding in the Church today regarding the gift of prophecy. Many people believe that prophecy only refers to telling something before it happens. However, even in the Old Testament, the messages of the prophets contained as much, if not more, about the present than they did about the future. In Hebrew, the word translated prophecy is based on the word stem nābā, which simply means “to speak by divine inspiration, either in prediction or simple discourse.” “ Prophecies ” is transliterated (i.e. brought straight over from Greek to English) from the noun prophēteia . It is made up of pro , meaning “before, in time or position” and a form of the verb phēmi , meaning “to tell.” The verb form of this word can refer EITHER : Foretelling (predicting or telling something before it happens). It seeks to predict the future. It predicts or reveals personalities, occurrences, circumstances that will hap...
Many Christians thought that Jacob worked seven years for Laban, realized that Laban deceived him to marry Leah, and then worked seven more years before finally getting married to Rachel. However the bible shows that he took both Leah and Rachel immediately before he began serving Laban. For clarity, I advise you to read this Jacob's story in other translations of the Bible aside King James Version (KJV). Meanwhile lets look at look at some of the facts from the Bible: (Genesis 29:21 KJV) And Jacob said unto Laban, Give me my wife, for my days are fulfilled, that I may go in unto her. Please note that the 7 years of service required of Jacob were the total dowry and not the customary waiting period before a wife was given to the groom. In other words, Jacob took Leah after the customary waiting period which was a couple of days just like we read in vs 21. Notice that he said, "Give me my wife, for my days are fulfilled" implying a certain number of d...
For hundreds of years, Christians incur the wrath of God by paying and receiving tithe. Though the doctrine of tithe is popular and generally accepted in Christianity, it’s a wrong doctrine. It’s actually a sin to pay tithe and it’s equally a sin to receive tithe in Christianity. The doctrine is generally accepted because of the misinterpretation of some tithe related scriptures. A misinterpretation of a scripture can lead many generations astray. In like manner, the misinterpretation of tithe related scriptures has led many Christian generations astray. Before explaining the true meaning of the scriptures, it’s important I first explain what tithe means. What is tithe? Tithe as an English word means one tenth or 10 percent. Tithe in the scripture means a mandatory 10 percent of one’s increase (Deuteronomy 14:22). How often did Israelites give Tithe? The tithe system had a seven-year cycle. The Israelites were mandated to give tithe on the first year, second year,...
It does not have any spiritual meaning. This could be why most prayers are not answered. You cannot ask or pray to Jesus in the name of Jesus. Stop praying such prayers: "Jesus I come to you in the name of Jesus" You can only pray to the Father in the name of Jesus. What does it mean to pray in the name of Jesus? Praying in Jesus' name means praying with His authority. It is making a demand in His stead (place); as if He is the one making it. Authority means delegated power. You cannot exercise an authority on the same person that gave it to you. Look at it this way, you cannot go to the President of your country to make a demand in the name of that President rather you can go to another President in the name of your own President. Jesus said pray to the Father in His name: John 16:24 Hitherto have ye asked nothing in my name: ask, and ye shall receive, that your joy may be full. Verse 26 & 27 At that day ye shall ask in my name: and I say not...
Firstfruits is a case where the literal meaning of a Biblical word has been changed to a modern concept. This substituting of one word for another is called the fallacy of equivocation. If you research the term, firstfruits really has nothing to do with money. Firstfruits were literally the first of the produce of plants or trees or livestock (including wool and yes, winel) that came from the Promised Land. God asked the Jewish people to give the firstfruits of the land to Him, because He had given them the land to begin with. These firstfruits were then distributed to the Levites/Priests who did not have a share in the land and depended on these supplies. (Neh 12:44) So, biblically, firstfruits do not appear to have been money; they were produce tied to God's gift of the land of Israel and they had a specific charitable purpose. Ask yourself: would your church be pleased if you LITERALLY followed this command and brought some wool, wine, grain, vegetables, or figs to the ...
What the Devil asked of Jesus in Matthew 4:3 was something moral and there is nothing in God's law that says it would be wrong to create a meal from stones. So why didn't he turn the stone into bread? (Matthew 4:3 KJV) And when the tempter came to him, he said, If thou be the Son of God, command that these stones be made bread. Several reasons have been given for not turning the stones into bread by many writers and teachers but not all are accurate. Here are the reasons presented by some writers and teachers: " It was God’s will for Christ to overcome the sin of appetite that He may be an example for us." "The problem wasn't that God forbade turning stones into bread. The problem was that God hadn't authorized it." "If Jesus had turned the stones into bread, not only would He have been acting without authority, He also would have been demonstrating a lack of trust in God." "Turning stones into bread would have bee...
It was prophesied in Isaiah 7:14 that a virgin will give birth to a child and the child will be named Immanuel, meaning "God with us". (Isaiah 7:14 KJV) Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel. Matthew in narrating the birth of Jesus stated that the prophesy in Isaiah 7:14 was fulfilled by the birth of Jesus. ( Matthew 1:21-23 KJV) And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins. Now all this was done, that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying, Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us. However, it seems the child was not named Immanuel but Jesus. Is this a contradiction? Why is Jesus named Jesus and not Immanuel as prophesied in Isaiah 7:14? Some non C...
This should be obvious but it seems a lot of people are having problem with it. God made Adam male and female. In other words, when Adam was first created he was both male and female. For people that are finding it hard to accept this is what the bible says: (Genesis 1:27 KJV) So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them. (Genesis 5:2 KJV) Male and female created he them; and blessed them, and called their name Adam , in the day when they were created. The first scripture in using the term "them" still seem to suggest that it was talking about both Adam and Eve and not only Adam at first. However the accounts in Matthew chapter 19 and Mark chapter 10 will give more insight. (Matthew 19:3 KJV) The Pharisees also came unto him, tempting him, and saying unto him, Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife for every cause? (Matthew 19:4 KJV) And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read...
“Then Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Except ye eat the flesh of the Son of man, and drink his blood, ye have no life in you.” — John 6:53 (KJV) These are among the most controversial words Jesus ever spoke — so much so that many of His own disciples turned away from following Him after this (John 6:66). But what did He really mean? Was He speaking literally… or was there a spiritual mystery hidden in His words? Let’s walk through this verse with reverence and clarity, using Scripture to interpret Scripture. What Does “Eat My Flesh” Mean? To understand this, we must first know who “the flesh of the Son of Man” is. Jesus is not just the eternal Word — He is the Word made flesh (John 1:14). This “flesh” represents more than just physical body — it speaks of: His humanity His incarnation (birth in human form) His earthly life and suffering His identity as the prophesied Son of Man So when Jesus says, “eat my flesh,” He is saying: Yo...
"Heaven helps those who help themselves" is not in the bible from my understanding, rather its the opposite.
ReplyDeleteGod helps the helpless, the powerless etc.
please enlighten me more on this, thank you.
Nice try Nze. Let's wait for comments from others.
ReplyDeleteNze, you are absolutely correct.
ReplyDeleteIt is not in the Bible. However, we should not completely discard the "possible" underlying interpretation the initial writer of the quote was trying to convey
ReplyDelete