"Heaven helps those who help themselves" is not in the bible from my understanding, rather its the opposite. God helps the helpless, the powerless etc. please enlighten me more on this, thank you.
It is not in the Bible. However, we should not completely discard the "possible" underlying interpretation the initial writer of the quote was trying to convey
This is a continuation of my previous post " Is The Rapture Biblical " Why would the saints rise to meet Christ in the air, when He is on His way to the earth to defeat evil and to establish the Kingdom of God here? Why not simply wait for Him to arrive? Those who teach the rapture make much of this issue, claiming that it buttresses their theory. In fact, the truth of the matter actually further discredits their erroneous teaching. We need to look at the meaning of the Greek term translated “to meet” that Christ inspired Paul to use in 1 Thessalonians 4:17. Dr. Leon Morris writes in the Tyndale New Testament Commentaries: “The expression translated to meet is kind of a technical term ‘for the official welcome of a newly arrived dignitary’…and is very suitable in this context.” Notice that it pertains to a newly arrived dignitary, not to one who is merely passing through. In no way does it convey that Christ only enters the atmosphere and then reverses cou...
Many Christians thought that Jacob worked seven years for Laban, realized that Laban deceived him to marry Leah, and then worked seven more years before finally getting married to Rachel. However the bible shows that he took both Leah and Rachel immediately before he began serving Laban. For clarity, I advise you to read this Jacob's story in other translations of the Bible aside King James Version (KJV). Meanwhile lets look at look at some of the facts from the Bible: (Genesis 29:21 KJV) And Jacob said unto Laban, Give me my wife, for my days are fulfilled, that I may go in unto her. Please note that the 7 years of service required of Jacob were the total dowry and not the customary waiting period before a wife was given to the groom. In other words, Jacob took Leah after the customary waiting period which was a couple of days just like we read in vs 21. Notice that he said, "Give me my wife, for my days are fulfilled" implying a certain number of d...
The Bible says that Jesus Christ came not only by water, but by water and blood. What does this statement mean? (1 John 5:6 KJV) This is he that came by water and blood, even Jesus Christ; not by water only, but by water and blood. And it is the Spirit that beareth witness, because the Spirit is truth. The secret to understanding this scripture is in the context. John used many verses in his 1st epistle to affirm that Jesus Christ came in the flesh (i.e. in real human body) and to counter the teachings and belief of some in those days that Jesus never came in the flesh. (1 John 1:1-2 NIV) That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked at and our hands have touched --this we proclaim concerning the Word of life. The life appeared; we have seen it and testify to it, and we proclaim to you the eternal life, which was with the Father and has appeared to us. (1 John 4:1-2 NLT) Dear friends, do not believe everyone who claim...
By revelation, we know and believe that Jesus is the Son of God, the Creator of heaven and earth. In other words, the Almighty God is the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ. The question that many ask is, "if God does not have a wife, how is Jesus His Son?" This question comes from the expectation that for one to be called a son, there must be a process of conception; i.e the process of becoming physically pregnant and child birth. Therefore, they say, since God has no wife, Jesus could not have been the Son of God. So we ask the question, in what sense then is Jesus the Son of God? Is He the Son of God the same way Adam was called the son of God in the book of Luke? (Luke 3:38 KJV) Which was the son of Enos, which was the son of Seth, which was the son of Adam, which was the son of God . The answer is NO. In writing about the genealogy of Jesus, Luke assigned Adam as the son of God since he did not have a human father or mother. Adam was the son of God because God created him...
The answer to this question, "who should we pray to" should be straightforward after a study of the Bible. Yet a lot of Christians are still not certain who they should address their prayers to. While many pray to the Father, others pray to Jesus in the name of Jesus. Yet a few others pray to the Holy Spirit in the name of Jesus. Should we only pray to the Father in the name of Jesus? Or is it appropriate to pray directly to Jesus? Is it appropriate to pray directly to the Holy Spirit? Is it appropriate to pray in the name of the Father? But you may say, does it really matter who we address our prayers to since it is answered anyway? Afterall, the three Persons; the Father, the Son and the Holy Ghost are God and they all agree in one. Well, even though you have been receiving some answers to your prayers, the right knowledge of who you should address your prayers may be all you need to receive many more answered prayers. The Bible tells us that God overlooks our days of ignor...
The bible says in Malachi 3:6 (KJV) "For I am the LORD, I change not; therefore ye sons of Jacob are not consumed." What does this statement mean? Does God repent or change His mind? I change not could only refer to basic character and to keeping covenant, not to acts of judgment or mercy when needed. God has repented or changed His mind when it became necessary because of free moral agents revelling to the point of judgment and this was in keeping with His character. He is absolute in holiness and justice, and is morally and divinely obligated for the good of all to judge the few or all if need be or to show mercy to one and all should they meet the conditions of mercy. God does not and cannot change His original and eternal plan and purpose, but He can and does change some ways and means of fulfilling the plan.
Pastor said they are not the same. He said speaking God's word is mainly when Satan throws thoughts at you, and circumstances raise their voices against you and you say, “It is written,” and then go ahead to say what is written. You say it exactly as it is in Scripture. Example is in Matthew 4:1-4 when Jesus responded to Satan by saying “It is written, Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God”. He quoted Deuteronomy 8:3 ...... man doth not live by bread only, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of the LORD doth man live . Responding to God's Word is by vocalization of your faith on the basis of what God has already said. For example, 1 John 4:4 says, “ Ye are of God, little children, and have overcome them: because greater is he that is in you, than he that is in the world .” Your response should be, “Yes, I am of God and I’ve overcome the Devil and the adversities of life, because greater is He...
Genesis 6:6 is one of those difficult verses in the bible of which different bible commentators have varied interpretations. The verse seems to suggest that God regretted His action of creating man on earth. But how can one attribute regret to the All-Knowing God? Genesis 6:6 (ESV) And the LORD regretted that he had made man on the earth, and it grieved him to his heart. Genesis 6:6 (KJV) And it repented the LORD that he had made man on the earth, and it grieved him at his heart. Genesis 6:6 (NASB) The LORD was sorry that He had made man on the earth, and He was grieved in His heart. The Hebrew word translated as “ regretted ” or " repented" or " sorry" in the above verse is yin'nā'hem , from the root word nacham . The word is exclusively about emotions: a feeling of pain, sadness, or unhappiness. The word does not imply that God feels He has made a mistake, or that He wishes to have done differently . However, this wo...
I recently had a chat with a friend on a topic, "why did God rest on the seventh day? He said, "people say God created the world and rested on the 7th day, does it mean that God gets tired? Does He need a rest? Are there days He does not work? What if you are in a dire situation and prayed to Him on a day He is resting, will He answer?" My response to my friend was that God's rest as stated in the Bible does not have anything to do with being tired. God does not get tired or weary. (Isaiah 40:28 KJV) Hast thou not known? hast thou not heard, that the everlasting God, the LORD, the Creator of the ends of the earth, fainteth not, neither is weary? there is no searching of his understanding. (John 5:17 NLT) But Jesus replied, “My Father is always working, and so am I." The Hebrew word translated as " rested " in many Versions of the Bible in Genesis 2:2 is " Shâbath (Shavat) ". However, a more accurate translation of " Shavat " is ...
"Heaven helps those who help themselves" is not in the bible from my understanding, rather its the opposite.
ReplyDeleteGod helps the helpless, the powerless etc.
please enlighten me more on this, thank you.
Nice try Nze. Let's wait for comments from others.
ReplyDeleteNze, you are absolutely correct.
ReplyDeleteIt is not in the Bible. However, we should not completely discard the "possible" underlying interpretation the initial writer of the quote was trying to convey
ReplyDelete