DOES THE BIBLE STATE THAT THE WORD "LUCIFER" IS THE NAME OF THE DEVIL?

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The word lucifer is used only once in the English Bible and it is in Isaiah 14:12.

Isaiah 14:12: “How art thou fallen from heaven, O Lucifer, son of the morning! How art thou cut down to the ground, which didst weaken the nations!"

It is from the Latin term lucem ferre, which literally means “bringer, or bearer of light, the shining one, the son of the dawn, the morning star (the star we now know by another Roman name, Venus). The morning star appears in the heavens just before dawn, heralding the rising sun. Isaiah is using this metaphor for a bright light, though not the greatest light to illustrate the apparent power of the Babylonian king which then faded."

The Hebrew of this passage reads: "heleyl, ben shachar" which can be literally translated "shining one, day star, son of the dawn, morning star or son of the morning." In the Septuagint, a 3rd century BCE translation of the Hebrew scriptures into Greek, it renders הֵילֵל in Greek as Ἑωσφόρος (heōsphoros) which also means Venus as a morning star.

Why was the Latin word retained in the English Bible?
This word comes from Jerome's Latin Vulgate. In Latin at the time, "lucifer" actually meant Venus as a morning star. Was Jerome in error in using the word? Not at all. Rather the scholars authorized by King James I to translate the Bible into then current English did not use the original Hebrew texts, but used versions translated largely by St. Jerome in the fourth century. They decided to retain the Latin word in Jerome's Latin Vulgate in the English Bible. It was the later Christians that started equating "lucifer" with "Satan". 

Please note that in the Hebrew text the expression used to describe the Babylonian king before his death is Helal, son of Shahar. It is not about a fallen angel, but about a fallen Babylonian king, who during his lifetime had persecuted the children of Israel. It contains no mention of Satan, either by name or reference.

Conclusion
The word “lucifer” is now commonly, though inappropriately, given to the prince of darkness. The irony for those who believe that "lucifer" refers to Satan (Devil) is that the same title ('morning star' or 'light-bearer') is used to refer to Jesus, in 2 Peter 1:19, where the Greek text has exactly the same term: 'phos-phoros' 'light-bearer.' Again, the Latin Vulgate has it translated as "lucifer".

2 Peter 1:19: “We have also a more sure word of prophecy; whereunto ye do well that ye take heed, as unto a light that shineth in a dark place, until the day dawn, and the day star arise in your hearts"

Here’s the point: The morning star literally referred to Venus, but in ancient times it was used metaphorically of earthly kings, emperors, and pagan deities. Peter thus may have chosen this word to show that the real morning star was Jesus, not Caesar.

Jesus calls himself the "morning star" in Revelation 22:16.

Revelation 22:16: "I Jesus have sent mine angel to testify unto you these things in the churches. I am the root and the offspring of David, and the bright and morning star."

Does this mean that the KJV is wrong at this place? Technically, no. But in terms of clarity to the average reader, it can be very confusing.

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